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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 12:32

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What would you change in the "Game of Thrones" storyline if you were one of the writers of the TV series?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

How do Greeks identify themselves in terms of civilization? Do they feel more connected to Western or Middle Eastern civilization and why?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.